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Practice free exam-style questions for Currency Derivatives Certification Examination.
A trader buys 75 lots of USD/INR futures at ₹83.4275. The contract rises by 24 ticks. Given a tick size of ₹0.0025 and lot size of 1,000 USD, what is the MTM profit?
Which derivative market function is most responsible for improving allocative efficiency in the economy?
A call option has: Strike Price = ₹84.50, Premium = ₹1.10, Spot at Expiry = ₹86.40. What is the buyer's percentage return on premium invested?
An interbank forex dealer enters a Tom transaction on Wednesday. Thursday is a market holiday. Settlement occurs on:
An IOC order to buy 1,500 contracts receives immediate execution for only 920 contracts. What percentage of the order is cancelled?
Open Interest rises from 2,50,000 contracts to 2,85,000 contracts while price also rises significantly. This most likely indicates:
A put option has: Strike = ₹85, Premium = ₹1.25, Spot at Expiry = ₹83. What is the net profit per unit?
Which of the following best describes RBI intervention under a managed float regime?
A trader creates a Bull Call Spread: Buy ₹84 Call @ ₹1.40, Sell ₹86 Call @ ₹0.50. What is the maximum possible profit?
A USD/INR futures contract expires with an FBIL Reference Rate of ₹84.7350. The trader's long position was entered at ₹83.9200. Profit per contract (1,000 USD) equals:
A naked call writer receives premium ₹0.80. At expiry, intrinsic value becomes ₹3.60. Net loss per unit equals:
Spot USD/INR = ₹82.50, One-year Futures = ₹84.15. Annualized premium percentage equals:
A call option has: Strike = ₹84, Spot = ₹86.20, Premium = ₹2.80. The option is:
An exporter expects to receive USD after 4 months. Which strategy completely locks the exchange rate?
A long option position has Theta = −0.06. Ignoring all other factors, expected premium decay over 12 days equals:
Which option style eliminates early exercise risk for option writers?
Which feature contributes most directly to the reduction of counterparty risk in futures markets?
A call option premium is ₹2.75 while intrinsic value is ₹1.10. Time value represents what percentage of premium?
A triangular arbitrage transaction begins with ₹84,000 and generates ₹84,840 after completing all currency conversions. Arbitrage gain equals:
A trader expects severe INR depreciation and wants maximum leverage without paying option premium. Which position is most suitable?
A futures contract's last 30-minute trades are: ₹84.10 (100 lots), ₹84.20 (200 lots), ₹84.25 (300 lots). The Daily Settlement Price (VWAP) is:
An importer buys a USD Call: Strike = ₹84, Premium = ₹0.90. At expiry, Spot = ₹86.50. Effective USD acquisition cost becomes:
If: EUR/USD = 1.1500, USD/INR = 84.20. Then EUR/INR cross rate equals:
A futures trader incurs a loss of ₹45,000 during today's MTM process. When must the variation margin generally be paid?
Which market participant contributes most to liquidity by deliberately accepting market risk in anticipation of profit?
Position limit for EURUSD at trading member level is:
A client buys a USD call option at strike of 75.5 and pays a premium of INR 0.3. What is the breakeven point?
The Gamma of an option measures:
Which economic indicator is most directly associated with measuring inflation and is used by RBI for policy design?
The "Kill Switch" facility allows a trading member to:
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